Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 00:09
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Can a Trump supporter explain what was wrong with what Bishop Budde said to Donald Trump?
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Why am I so wanting to suck a penis?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.